NEW CIC TEST SAMPLE - VALID CIC TEST SIMULATOR

New CIC Test Sample - Valid CIC Test Simulator

New CIC Test Sample - Valid CIC Test Simulator

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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q99-Q104):

NEW QUESTION # 99
What rate is expressed by the number of patients who acquire infections over a specified time period divided by the population at risk of acquiring an infection during that time period?

  • A. Period prevalence
  • B. Incidence rate
  • C. Disease specific
  • D. Point prevalence

Answer: B

Explanation:
The incidence rate measures new cases of infection in a population over a defined time period using the formula:

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* B. Disease specific - Refers to infections caused by a particular pathogen, not the general rate of new infections.
* C. Point prevalence - Measures existing cases at a specific point in time, not new cases.
* D. Period prevalence - Includes both old and new cases over a set period, unlike incidence, which only considers new cases.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
APIC defines incidence rate as the number of new infections in a population over a given period.


NEW QUESTION # 100
A patient with pertussis can be removed from Droplet Precautions after

  • A. the paroxysmal stage has ended.
  • B. the patient has been given pertussis vaccine.
  • C. five days of appropriate antibiotic therapy.
  • D. direct fluorescent antibody and/or culture are negative.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A patient with pertussis (whooping cough) should remain on Droplet Precautions to prevent transmission.
According to APIC guidelines, patients with pertussis can be removed from Droplet Precautions after completing at least five days of appropriate antimicrobial therapy and showing clinical improvement.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Direct fluorescent antibody and/or culture are negative - Laboratory results may not always detect pertussis early, and false negatives can occur.
* C. The patient has been given pertussis vaccine - The vaccine prevents but does not treat pertussis, and it does not shorten the period of contagiousness.
* D. The paroxysmal stage has ended - The paroxysmal stage (severe coughing fits) can last weeks, but infectiousness decreases with antibiotics.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
According to APIC guidelines, Droplet Precautions should continue until the patient has received at least five days of antimicrobial therapy.


NEW QUESTION # 101
An infection preventionist (IP) encounters a surgeon at the nurse's station who loudly disagrees with the IP's surgical site infection findings. The IP's BEST response is to:

  • A. Report the surgeon to the chief of staff.
  • B. Calmly explain that the findings are credible.
  • C. Ask the surgeon to change their tone and leave the nurses' station if they refuse.
  • D. Ask the surgeon to speak in a more private setting to review their concerns.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scenario involves a conflict between an infection preventionist (IP) and a surgeon regarding surgical site infection (SSI) findings, occurring in a public setting (the nurse's station). The IP's response must align with professional communication standards, infection control priorities, and the principles of collaboration and conflict resolution as emphasized by the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC).
The "best" response should de-escalate the situation, maintain professionalism, and facilitate a constructive dialogue. Let's evaluate each option:
* A. Report the surgeon to the chief of staff: Reporting the surgeon to the chief of staff might be considered if the behavior escalates or violates policy (e.g., harassment or disruption), but it is an escalation that should be a last resort. This action does not address the immediate disagreement about the SSI findings or attempt to resolve the issue collaboratively. It could also strain professional relationships and is not the best initial response, as it bypasses direct communication.
* B. Calmly explain that the findings are credible: Explaining the credibility of the findings is important and demonstrates the IP's confidence in their work, which is based on evidence-based infection control practices. However, doing so in a public setting like the nurse's station, especially with a loud disagreement, may not be effective. The surgeon may feel challenged or defensive, potentially worsening the situation. While this response has merit, it lacks consideration of the setting and the need for privacy to discuss sensitive data.
* C. Ask the surgeon to speak in a more private setting to review their concerns: This response is the most appropriate as it addresses the immediate need to de-escalate the public confrontation and move the discussion to a private setting. It shows respect for the surgeon's concerns, maintains professionalism, and allows the IP to review the SSI findings (e.g., data collection methods, definitions, or surveillance techniques) in a controlled environment. This aligns with CBIC's emphasis on effective communication and collaboration with healthcare teams, as well as the need to protect patient confidentiality and maintain a professional atmosphere. It also provides an opportunity to educate the surgeon on the evidence behind the findings, which is a key IP role.
* D. Ask the surgeon to change their tone and leave the nurses' station if they refuse: Requesting a change in tone is reasonable given the loud disagreement, but demanding the surgeon leave if they refuse is confrontational and risks escalating the conflict. This approach could damage the working relationship and does not address the underlying disagreement about the SSI findings. While maintaining a respectful environment is important, this response prioritizes control over collaboration and is less constructive than seeking a private discussion.
The best response is C, as it promotes a professional, collaborative approach by moving the conversation to a private setting. This allows the IP to address the surgeon's concerns, explain the SSI surveillance methodology (e.g., NHSN definitions or CBIC guidelines), and maintain a positive working relationship, which is critical for effective infection prevention programs. This strategy reflects CBIC's focus on leadership, communication, and teamwork in healthcare settings.
References:
* CBIC Infection Prevention and Control (IPC) Core Competency Model (updated 2023), Domain V:
Management and Communication, which stresses effective interpersonal communication and conflict resolution.
* CBIC Examination Content Outline, Domain V: Leadership and Program Management, which includes collaborating with healthcare personnel and addressing disagreements professionally.
* CDC Guidelines for SSI Surveillance (2023), which emphasize the importance of clear communication of findings to healthcare teams.


NEW QUESTION # 102
A patient with suspected active tuberculosis is being transferred from a mental health facility to a medical center by emergency medical services. Which of the following should an infection preventionist recommend to the emergency medical technician (EMT)?

  • A. Place a surgical mask on both the patient and the EMT.
  • B. Place a surgical mask on the patient and an N95 respirator on the EMT.
  • C. Place an N95 respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on the EMT.
  • D. Place an N95 respirator on both the patient and the EMT.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Active tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne disease transmitted through the inhalation of droplet nuclei containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Effective infection control measures are critical during patient transport to protect healthcare workers, such as emergency medical technicians (EMTs), and to prevent community spread. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the use of appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and source control as key strategies in the "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, aligning with guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
For a patient with suspected active TB, the primary goal is to contain the infectious particles at the source (the patient) while ensuring the EMT is protected from inhalation exposure. Option C, placing an N95 respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on the EMT, is the most appropriate recommendation. The N95 respirator on the patient serves as source control by filtering the exhaled air, reducing the dispersion of infectious droplets. However, fitting an N95 respirator on the patient may be challenging, especially in an emergency setting or if the patient is uncooperative, so a surgical mask is often used as an alternative source control measure. For the EMT, a surgical mask provides a basic barrier but does not offer the same level of respiratory protection as an N95 respirator. The CDC recommends that healthcare workers, including EMTs, use an N95 respirator (or higher-level respiratory protection) when in close contact with a patient with suspected or confirmed active TB, unless an airborne infection isolation room is available, which is not feasible during transport.
Option A is incorrect because placing a surgical mask on both the patient and the EMT does not provide adequate respiratory protection for the EMT. Surgical masks are not designed to filter small airborne particles like those containing TB bacilli and do not meet the N95 standard required for airborne precautions. Option B is impractical and unnecessary, as placing an N95 respirator on both the patient and the EMT is overly restrictive and logistically challenging, especially for the patient during transport. Option D reverses the PPE roles, placing the surgical mask on the patient (insufficient for source control) and the N95 respirator on the EMT (appropriate for protection but misaligned with the need to control the patient's exhalation). The CBIC and CDC guidelines prioritize source control on the patient and respiratory protection for the healthcare worker, making Option C the best fit.
This recommendation is consistent with the CBIC's emphasis on implementing transmission-based precautions (CDC, 2005, Guideline for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings) and the use of PPE tailored to the mode of transmission, as outlined in the CBIC Practice Analysis (2022).
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Guideline for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings,
2005.


NEW QUESTION # 103
An adult with an incomplete vaccination history presents with an uncontrollable, rapid and violent cough, fever, and runny nose. Healthcare personnel should suspect

  • A. Rhinovirus.
  • B. Pertussis.
  • C. Bronchitis.
  • D. Adenovirus.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is A, "Pertussis," as healthcare personnel should suspect this condition based on the presented symptoms and the patient's incomplete vaccination history. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, pertussis, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is characterized by an initial phase of mild respiratory symptoms (e.g., runny nose, low-grade fever) followed by a distinctive uncontrollable, rapid, and violent cough, often described as a "whooping" cough.
This presentation is particularly concerning in adults with incomplete vaccination histories, as the pertussis vaccine's immunity (e.g., DTaP or Tdap) wanes over time, increasing susceptibility (CBIC Practice Analysis,
2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes). Pertussis is highly contagious and poses a significant risk in healthcare settings, necessitating prompt suspicion and isolation to prevent transmission.
Option B (rhinovirus) typically causes the common cold with symptoms like runny nose, sore throat, and mild cough, but it lacks the violent, paroxysmal cough characteristic of pertussis. Option C (bronchitis) may involve cough and fever, often due to viral or bacterial infection, but it is not typically associated with the rapid and violent cough pattern or linked to vaccination status in the same way as pertussis. Option D (adenovirus) can cause respiratory symptoms, including cough and fever, but it is more commonly associated with conjunctivitis or pharyngitis and does not feature the hallmark violent cough of pertussis.
The suspicion of pertussis aligns with CBIC's emphasis on recognizing infectious disease patterns to initiate timely infection control measures, such as droplet precautions and prophylaxis for exposed individuals (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). Early identification is critical, especially in healthcare settings, to protect vulnerable patients and staff, and the incomplete vaccination history supports this differential diagnosis given pertussis's vaccine-preventable nature (CDC Pink Book: Pertussis, 2021).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes; Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Pink Book:
Pertussis, 2021.


NEW QUESTION # 104
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